Pre flop percentage question
Complete newbie here, apologies in advance if this is a dumb question. Saw an old clip where 3 players went all in, pre: KK, KK, and A10 off, but the players with kings showed 2% each and the A10 showed 34%. Obviously an ace is higher than a king, but without it being paired or even suited, why was he still favored so much? Is it that likely that he would pair his Ace during the runout?
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Hi Chloe, I think it was because both players had KK. No set available on the table. Which in turn increases the probability of the A hitting the pair. I am enjoying your blogs, thanks for sharing your insights. Look forward to reading more ♥️♠️♦️♣️🃏👊
Pre flop - Equity should add up to 100% - this will always include the % chance of a chop say when the board runs out a straight or full house with no interaction with the players cards. in this instance with KK vs KK vs AT i think the graphics were trying to show the fact that KK vs KK is . Win 2.17 %. Tie 95.65 % so if you include AT then it has 3 aces over 5 cards equating about 34% equity. So the graphic was right i think but maybe you didnt see the Kings had about %64 equity to chop the hand with each other and therefore it didnt say for them to win outright , that would have been about 2% each . Hope i havent further confused the mattter!
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